Re: plausible sound change?
From: | Aidan Grey <frterminus@...> |
Date: | Friday, June 8, 2001, 20:24 |
--- Roger Mills <romilly@...> wrote:
> > (1)_ fricativize after a front vowel
> > (2)_ voices before a front vowel, which affects
> > the previous vowel
> > what would happen is both vowels were front?
> > etir > eidir or ithir?
> Same problem: eidir < 2,1; ithir < 1,2 (why does e-
> change to i-??).
e to i is a typo. Oops.
1,2 > etir to ethir by 1, to eidhir by 2.
2,1 > etir to eidir by 2, to eidhir by 1
If fric was cause only by high front vowels (i) then
I'd get
1,2 > eidir
2,1 > eidhir (maybe...)
> As to plausibility, IMVHO not. (Though I'm suppose
> someone will cite a
> natlang ex.)
I couldn't see how it was plausible either. I was
hoping someone would provide me with a way it could
be, because it would solve a problem I'm trying to
resolve at the moment.
> However, I can see front vowels
> > fricativize front (dental) consonants, perhaps
> along with back vowels >
> fric. back (velar) consonants, etc.; similarly,
> voicing of cons. between
> (all) vowels; or changes to vowels depending on the
> following vowel--
> that's sort of what umlaut is.
Yes, I had an idea that labial cons would cause
u-umlaut or rounding, dental > i-umlaut, and velar >
a-umlaut. Fric of only dentals might work fine...
I'm also wondering if a common welsh derivation
could work in reverse:
in plosive clusters, the second element is
fricativized, then the first element assimilates to
it, and then vocalizes, forming diphthongs.
frex: latin nocte > nokT > noxT > noeT /nojT/
approximately.
So, could i develop into a palatal fricative, and
then cause fricativization by assimilation? In welsh,
i: often > /ij/, with the /j/ becoming /D/. If this is
plausible, then I've got my solution:
i:, e:, i all > ij in tonic syll
j > pal fric before cons
assimilation of fric
loss of pal fric
itir 'between' < OI itir
> ijtir
> ijTir
> iTir <ithir>
Does this seem plausible now?
Aidan
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