Re: Conlang Typology Survey
| From: | Mark J. Reed <markjreed@...> |
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| Date: | Wednesday, May 21, 2003, 0:45 |
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On Tue, May 20, 2003 at 08:22:47PM -0400, Matt Trinsic wrote:
> Well, it might be, im just making my best guess from reading the
> "language construction kit" websites. The case is within the verb,
> though, which might make a difference. For example, "liest foest
> saaliez" means "i see you", while "liest foeft saaliez" mean "I am seen
> by you".
That's not a case distinction; that's an active/passive voice
distinction. If "you see me" is "saaliez foest liest" and "you
are seen by me" is "saaliez foeft liest" (modulo any change in the
verb form required by the change in subject person), then it looks
like you don't have case distinctions at all. Which is just fine -
many natlangs don't have them, and English only has them in pronouns.
-Mark
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