Re: Conlang Typology Survey

Mark J. Reed wrote:
> On Tue, May 20, 2003 at 08:22:47PM -0400, Matt Trinsic wrote:
>
>>Well, it might be, im just making my best guess from reading the
>>"language construction kit" websites. The case is within the verb,
>>though, which might make a difference. For example, "liest foest
>>saaliez" means "i see you", while "liest foeft saaliez" mean "I am seen
>>by you".
>
>
> That's not a case distinction; that's an active/passive voice
> distinction.  If "you see me" is "saaliez foest liest" and "you
> are seen by me" is "saaliez foeft liest" (modulo any change in the
> verb form required by the change in subject person), then it looks
> like you don't have case distinctions at all.  Which is just fine -
> many natlangs don't have them, and English only has them in pronouns.
>
> -Mark
>
Okay. It looks completely caseless then. Thanks for the help =)
Another question I have is if there is a name for a grammer which has a
set of inflections to flag the end of a sentance or clause? For
instance, saying "I see" would be "liest foez".

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