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Re: CHAT: Digest [various]

From:And Rosta <a.rosta@...>
Date:Sunday, March 26, 2000, 19:23
Muke Tever
> > It is possible that this simply an irregular spelling, and indeed an > > irregular pronunciation, which does happen with vocab borrowed into ModE, > > tho not normally. But I was hoping that one of our many pedants and > > omniscients would know whether the spelling or pronunciation is irregular; > > it wouldn't be if the word were from Greek (which I believe it not to be, > > but can't check right now). If the spelling merely followed the > > pronunciation, then it ought to be spelt <sk>. > > My dictionary has schism < ME _(s)cisme_ < OF < LL _schisma_ < Gr _skhisma_, > from _skhizein_...
I was talking about _schedule_, Muke, not _schism_. As for _schism_, your dictionary, like others, is misleading. /sIzm/ is < ME (s)cisme, while both /skIzm/ and <schism> are directly from the Latin, where "from Latin" needn't mean "from historical Latin as it was actually ever spoken". I am making an essentially synchronic statement, in the sense that a word's having been borrowed into English from Latin and Greek is a synchronic property of the borrowed word (like its spelling, pronunciation, sense, grammatical category, etc.), rather than merely a fact about how they first entered an ancestral form of English. Enough of this thread; I can think of no sufficient apropos and uncontrived ObConlangry. (But if anyone does know the full explanation and story of _schedule_, do let me know, privately if appropriate. Ray's message on the topic is about as much as I can glean from sources available to me.) --And.