Theiling Online    Sitemap    Conlang Mailing List HQ   

Re: Historical Lingusitics/Dialect Question

From:Andreas Johansson <andjo@...>
Date:Sunday, September 7, 2003, 20:10
Quoting Muke Tever <muke@...>:

> > As far as I can work it out, grammatical change follows phonological > > change, > > because the phonemes tend to collide, eg: > > > > Latin ending -us loses -s, -um loses -m, degrades to -o > > Didn't the -s actually remain for quite awhile? I know it's still remnant > in Old French.
It seems not to be gone at all in Spanish - names like "Marcos" is supposed to be reflexes of nominatives used as vocatives in late Latin. That Spanish masculines typically nonetheless end in simply -o is supposed to be due to accusatives simply replacing nominatives for no phonological reason. Andreas