Re: Historical Lingusitics/Dialect Question

> As far as I can work it out, grammatical change follows phonological
> change,
> because the phonemes tend to collide, eg:
>
> Latin ending -us loses -s, -um loses -m, degrades to -o
Didn't the -s actually remain for quite awhile?  I know it's still remnant
in Old French.


     *Muke!
--
http://frath.net/

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