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Re: Another question about language naming

From:Muke Tever <alrivera@...>
Date:Saturday, March 16, 2002, 18:46
From: "Roger Mills" <romilly@...>
> >> After switching to "i" for a while, > >> I compromised, and now typically use "ie" for this sound. On the other > >> hand, a word like "Zirien" risks being mispronounced as a three-syllable > >> "zi-ri-en". So does it make sense to go so far as "Zireen" to avoid the > >> chance of misinterpretation? Or would conlangers, who tend to be more > >> familiar with languages than the average English speaker, assume this is > >> meant to be pronounced [zire:n]? > > > >I would assume /zIRiEn/ for the former and /zIRin/ for the > >latter. The double letter spellings look oh so English. :) > > Agree on Zirien; "Zireen" could be [zIri:n] or [zire:n] or even [zajri:n] > depending on whim. It strikes me that the <ee> will be quite confusing to > _this_ group, many/most of whom are familiar with the idea of phonemics, and > have managed to make the disconnect between the writing and pronunciation of > English or English-ified words.
You could use "Zirene", probably, which looks English enough to provoke an [in] ending in everybody.. but it might be [zajrin] there too.. Zirrene? Zerene? *Muke! -- http://www.frath.net/

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Joe <joe@...>