On Wed, 3 Feb 1999 18:25:39 -0500 Carlos Thompson
<cthompso@...> writes:
>> >2. y la tiera era vana y vazia y escuridad sovre fasis de abismo y
>> >espiritu de el dio abolava sovre fasis delash [sic] aguash. [sic]
>> > ^
>> >3. y dijo el dio sea luz y fue luz.
>> > ^
>> >
>> >Some other explanation?
>> >
>> >Carlos Eugenio Thompson Pinzon
>> I'm not sure what your point is...
>That I don't think that the explanation is the lack of "f" in Hebrew
>(was it
>written in Hebrew alphabet?) after "fasis" and "fue" use that "f".
>
>-- Carlos
>
There is an F in Hebrew....it's an allophone of P. I think what the
person was talking about who was talking about Fs is that many Latin
words with F turned into H in Spanish, like "hacer".
It was written in the Hebrew alphabet, the [f]s were marked with a bar
over the letter to distinguish them from the [p]s.
-Stephen (Steg)
"hhalomot zeh b'emet"
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