Steg Belsky wrote:
> >> Oo, tha's right! The aitch was pronounced into the 16th or 17th
> >cen. or
> >> so (I think). I wonder why an obvious h- then would not be
> >> translitterated (does Hebrew have that letter, or something
> >>similar?)
>
> >2. y la tiera era vana y vazia y escuridad sovre fasis de abismo y
> >espiritu de el dio abolava sovre fasis delash [sic] aguash. [sic]
> > ^
> >3. y dijo el dio sea luz y fue luz.
> > ^
> >
> >Some other explanation?
> >
> >Carlos Eugenio Thompson Pinzon
>
> I'm not sure what your point is...
That I don't think that the explanation is the lack of "f" in Hebrew (was it
written in Hebrew alphabet?) after "fasis" and "fue" use that "f".
-- Carlos