Re: Is this sound change plausible?
| From: | John Cowan <jcowan@...> |
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| Date: | Monday, January 6, 2003, 5:31 |
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Thomas Leigh scripsit:
> [I]s /o/ to /2/ feasible?
Well, /2/ is the i-umlaut of /o/ in Germanic languages, so if there is an
/i/ somewhere following, then /o/ > /2/ is feasible.
--
John Cowan <jcowan@...> http://www.ccil.org/~cowan
"One time I called in to the central system and started working on a big
thick 'sed' and 'awk' heavy duty data bashing script. One of the geologists
came by, looked over my shoulder and said 'Oh, that happens to me too.
Try hanging up and phoning in again.'" --Beverly Erlebacher
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