Re: Is this sound change plausible?
| From: | Nik Taylor <yonjuuni@...> |
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| Date: | Monday, January 6, 2003, 5:43 |
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John Cowan wrote:
> Well, /2/ is the i-umlaut of /o/ in Germanic languages, so if there is an
> /i/ somewhere following, then /o/ > /2/ is feasible.
Well, French had unconditioned /u/ -> /y/, so unconditioned /o/ -> /2/
might be possible, especially if accompanied by /u/ -> /y/
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