Re: fortis vs lenis (was Re: German style orthography)
|From:||Muke Tever <hotblack@...>|
|Date:||Sunday, December 12, 2004, 23:04|
On Sun, 12 Dec 2004 11:20:13 +0000, Ray Brown <ray.brown@...> wrote:
>> I've even heard some people argue
>> that voicing isn't the primary distinction in English (I can't remember
>> what they were arguing was the primary distinction...),
> Possibly aspiration - I have seen English described this way.
I've seen it too, but I don't like it.
English does have its unaspirated voiceless stops, after /s/; and to me
it doesn't make sense to lump those with the voiced ones, but rather the
reverse--"disguise" most certainly has a member of /k_h/ phoneme in it,
regardless of what the etymology would indicate.
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