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Re: fortis vs lenis (was Re: German style orthography)

From:Muke Tever <hotblack@...>
Date:Sunday, December 12, 2004, 23:04
On Sun, 12 Dec 2004 11:20:13 +0000, Ray Brown <ray.brown@...> wrote:
>> I've even heard some people argue >> that voicing isn't the primary distinction in English (I can't remember >> what they were arguing was the primary distinction...), > > Possibly aspiration - I have seen English described this way.
I've seen it too, but I don't like it. English does have its unaspirated voiceless stops, after /s/; and to me it doesn't make sense to lump those with the voiced ones, but rather the reverse--"disguise" most certainly has a member of /k_h/ phoneme in it, regardless of what the etymology would indicate. *Muke! -- website: LiveJournal: deviantArt: FrathWiki, a conlang and conculture wiki: