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Re: questions about Arabic

From:Steg Belsky <draqonfayir@...>
Date:Wednesday, March 21, 2001, 0:22
On Tue, 20 Mar 2001 12:54:04 EST David Peterson <DigitalScream@...>
writes:
> In a message dated 3/20/01 5:59:19 AM, christophe.grandsire@FREE.FR > writes:
> << And is the root P`L cognate with F`L (I would say yes at first > glance) > meaning "to do" in Arabic? >>
> Yes. /p/ has the allophones [p] and [phi] (don't know how to write > it; > voiceless, bilabial fricative). There's no /f/. > > -David
- Bilabial fricative? I thought i was the only one to do that, because of influence from the Spanish soft /b/... I thought that all accents of Hebrew use [f] for the softened version of [p]. -Stephen (Steg) "Yippy Skippy, The Evil!"