On Tue, 20 Mar 2001 12:54:04 EST David Peterson <DigitalScream@...>
writes:
> In a message dated 3/20/01 5:59:19 AM, christophe.grandsire@FREE.FR
> writes:
> << And is the root P`L cognate with F`L (I would say yes at first
> glance)
> meaning "to do" in Arabic? >>
> Yes. /p/ has the allophones [p] and [phi] (don't know how to write
> it;
> voiceless, bilabial fricative). There's no /f/.
>
> -David
-
Bilabial fricative? I thought i was the only one to do that, because of
influence from the Spanish soft /b/...
I thought that all accents of Hebrew use [f] for the softened version of
[p].
-Stephen (Steg)
"Yippy Skippy, The Evil!"