Re: Droppin' D's Revisited

Oskar Gudlaugsson wrote:
> So 'infans' would have been
> pronounced [i:fa:s] (I think that's correct vowel length, not sure).
Then why is the French _enfante_?  Was it a learned borrowing from
Latin?

> Some final s's (like
> in nominative singular -us) weren't pronounced that much either, though I
> read that in Cicero's times, such s-deletion was considered rustic.
And not in all dialects of VL, I believe.  Old French had -s as
nominative singular masculine.