Re: Fiat Lux

On Thu, 21 Jun 2001 18:28:55 -0400 Matthew Kehrt <matrix14@...>
writes:
> Fiat lux = 'Let there be light' in Latin.
> I am confused how this statement works.  Lux is obviously light, but
> what is fiat?  It seems to be a command of some sort.  Does Latin
> then
> have a verb for 'to allow to be'?  Or is there some sort of
> 'allowative'
> mood or voice?  Maybe fiat is an interjection, a la 'lo'.
> Then again, it could be that the Vulgate translates this phrase
> utterly wrong.
> Note that Young's Literal Translation gives this as
> "Let light be"
> -M
-

The Hebrew original has _yehi or_.  _or_ is "light", and _yehi_ is a
short form of _yihyeh_, meaning "he will be" (_or_ is a masculine noun).
Future verbs in Hebrew (especially the short forms of "to be") are used
as jussives, if i remember the term correctly.  So it actually does mean
"let there be light" or "let light be".


-Stephen (Steg)
 "i'm sick of not living to stay alive" ~ the offspring, "all i want"

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