Re: Imperative vs Jussive vs Hortative

On Wed, 28 Dec 2005 07:21:47 -0500, Carsten Becker
<naranoieati@...> wrote:

> On Wed, 28 Dec 2005, 12:19 AM CET, Paul Bennett wrote:
>
>> As far as I can tell, the imperative, jussive and
>> hortative cases have  roughly the same semantic
>> connotation, except they're split by person,  thus:
>>
>> Hortative: 1st person plural inclusive (Let's eat!)
>> Imperative: 2nd person (Go!)
>> Jussive: 3rd person (Let them eat cake!)
>
> Isn't at least the imperative considered a mode? Hortative
> and Jussive also seem to me rather to be modes than cases.
Yes. My brain automatically supplies the word "case" when it sees
linguistics words ending in "-ive". It's a known bug, and I'm working on
it.





Paul