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Re: Imperative vs Jussive vs Hortative

From:Carsten Becker <naranoieati@...>
Date:Wednesday, December 28, 2005, 12:22
On Wed, 28 Dec 2005, 12:19 AM CET, Paul Bennett wrote:

> As far as I can tell, the imperative, jussive and > hortative cases have roughly the same semantic > connotation, except they're split by person, thus: > > Hortative: 1st person plural inclusive (Let's eat!) > Imperative: 2nd person (Go!) > Jussive: 3rd person (Let them eat cake!)
Isn't at least the imperative considered a mode? Hortative and Jussive also seem to me rather to be modes than cases. OK, but then, in Ayeri, the 'native' word for 'mode' is 'verbal case' (as in Latin 'casus verbi' IIRC) and cases are 'nominal cases'. Cheers, Carsten -- Keywords: imperatives "Miranayam cepauarà naranoaris." (Calvin nay Hobbes)

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Paul Bennett <paul-bennett@...>