Re: USAGE: Adapting non-Latin scripts
From: | Michael Adams <abrigon@...> |
Date: | Thursday, May 25, 2006, 13:11 |
Very true, some consitancy would be nice, but we are sadly left
with the residue of meddlesome dictionarions who seem to love
French more than English and wanted to beutify it, making it
sort of a conlang, since was the words we use of a French origin
there before the dictionary people put them in the language,
same with the spelling, was it how things was spelled before
c.1600, or was it just someone trying to construct French, but
on an English/Germanic though simplified Grammer? Or worse,
trying to keep an old French form alive as much as possible?
>From the 1600s onwards Parisian French was becomming or so it
seems the Official Language of France, while the French form,
based on either Norman/Anjevan and southern French was on its
way out.. Not even spoken in England any more. Sort of a last
vegtige of the English Crowns claim to the French one, going
back to like Edward I, or Henry V?
Mike
Alaska