Re: another silly phonology question
| From: | Raymond Brown <ray.brown@...> |
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| Date: | Tuesday, November 28, 2000, 20:07 |
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At 10:02 am -0500 28/11/00, H. S. Teoh wrote:
>On Tue, Nov 28, 2000 at 03:34:06PM +0100, daniel andreasson wrote:
>> Teoh wrote:
>>
>> > I'll let better-clued list members answer that, but I'd like
>> > to say that symmetry in languages is not 100%. For example,
>> > English has [h] but no other glottals (at least not that I'm
>> > aware of).
>>
>> I'm pre??y sure Bri?ish English has a glo??al stop. :-)
>[snip]
>
>Hmm, that's strange. AFAIK, British English tends to *emphasize* the /t/'s
>-- [brIt<h>iS h&s glot<h>:@l st<h>Ops].
Oh yes? What British English have you been listening too?
>I thought it was American that's
>pronouncing /t/ as [?] :-)
Alas, no :=(
Colloquial Bri?ish English has fousands of glo??l stops.
>But then again, what do I know about colloquial British... :-)
Nuffink :-)
Ray.
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A mind which thinks at its own expense
will always interfere with language.
[J.G. Hamann 1760]
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