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Re: USAGE: Beijing (was: USAGE: RE: [CONLANG] A BrSc a? & Nyuu Romaji)

From:Philip Newton <philip.newton@...>
Date:Tuesday, April 23, 2002, 7:21
On 22 Apr 02, at 17:55, Douglas Koller, Latin & Frenc wrote:

> John wrote: > > >Actually, I now must sail on the other tack. [beIdZiN] is a *much* > >better approximation for the city's name than [pekiN or [phikIN]. > >The k > dZ change happened already in the 16th century. > > Not g > dZ?
Remember that Wade-Giles {k} is [k] and {k'} is [k_h] -- As I understand it, Mandarin Chinese does not differentiate between voiced and voiceless stops, as in English, but between aspirated and unaspirated (voiceless) ones. So whether you write the contrast k/k' (as in WG) or g/k (as in Pinyin) is a matter of convention; hence, both "k" and "g" would be "right" for that sound, depending on whom you ask.
> could mean there was a Wadesy-Gilesy thing goin' on
Almost certainly. Or the "Post Office" romanisation, which had some similarities, if I'm not mistaken.
> (and what, then, with "p"? p'>p?).
Nope; p > p. Only that Wade-Giles spells [p] as {p} while Pinyin spells that sound {b}. (Pinyin {p} is Wade-Giles {p'}, phoneticalls [p_h].) (There was also an older English name "Peiping" for the city, but that referred to a different Chinese pronunciation as well; the second character was not "capital city" but rather "peace".) Cheers, Philip -- Philip Newton <Philip.Newton@...>