Re: A question of semantics
From: | John Cowan <jcowan@...> |
Date: | Thursday, August 7, 2003, 20:56 |
JS Bangs scripsit:
> Does Lojban encode a subjective/objective distinction? If so, is this
> distinction meant to be culturally neutral? Because not all cultures have
> a subjective/objective distinction, and even those that do can violently
> disagree as to what kinds of knowledge belong in which category.
I don't think so, unless I misunderstand what you mean by "subjective/
objective distinction". The distinction is "specific/nonspecific". If I
say "I see a [specific] cat", then you can't tell if this is true unless
you know what I'm referring to by "a [specific] cat". If you know, then
you can tell if the sentence is true; whether the object really is a
cat is helpful, but not determinative. Possible English translations
are "I see the cat" (specific and definite) and "I see a certain cat"
(specific and indefinite).
Whereas, "I see a [nonspecific] cat" is true iff what I am seeing is in
fact a cat.
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