Re: A question of semantics

Quoting John Cowan <jcowan@...>:

> JS Bangs scripsit:
>
> > Does Lojban encode a subjective/objective distinction? If so, is this
> > distinction meant to be culturally neutral? Because not all cultures have
> > a subjective/objective distinction, and even those that do can violently
> > disagree as to what kinds of knowledge belong in which category.
>
> I don't think so, unless I misunderstand what you mean by "subjective/
> objective distinction".  The distinction is "specific/nonspecific".  If I
> say "I see a [specific] cat", then you can't tell if this is true unless
> you know what I'm referring to by "a [specific] cat".
I think the term usually used for this is "referential".  C'ali
makes covert use of referentiality in determining whether certain
kinds of nominals take case morphology.

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Thomas Wier            "I find it useful to meet my subjects personally,
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