Re: A question of semantics

Herman Miller wrote:
> Oddly, it does exist, but not with the meaning I assumed -- it's the
> opposite of "affectedness" (meaning "affectation"). That doesn't seem
> nearly as useful as what I was thinking it meant (a condition of being
> unaffected by events).
Interesting.  The meaning I meant was exactly what you thought, "The
condition of being unaffected by events"

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