Re: IPA (Was: Re: Hello, I'm new too)
From: | jesse stephen bangs <jaspax@...> |
Date: | Tuesday, October 24, 2000, 20:46 |
> > Huh? I've always thought that the curly-tailed [z] was the correct IPA
> > symbol for the Spanish sound. It's a voiced palatal fricative, just
> > barely different from the voiced palatal approximant [j]. I care because
> > my conlang has a phonemic difference between them! Any more info on this?
>
> The curly-tail-c (unvoiced) and curly-tail-z (voiced) are the Polish and
> Mandarin sounds, which are marked by the tongue position: the tip is
> behind the lower teeth.
More questions of phonetics. When I pronounce English <y>, I have the tip
of my tongue behind my lower teeth and the body of my tongue touching the
alveolar ridge on the sides, with space along the palate. This is [j]
by all descriptions. When I pronounce Yivríndil <yy> I have the tip and
sides of my tongue in the same place, only the body of the tongue is
closer to the palate and produces audible friction. Is this [j\]
(curly-tail [j])?
Jesse S. Bangs jaspax@u.washington.edu
"It is of the new things that men tire--of fashions and proposals and
improvements and change. It is the old things that startle and
intoxicate. It is the old things that are young."
-G.K. Chesterton _The Napoleon of Notting Hill_