Re: Ladino, Hs, and Fs

Padraic Brown wrote:
>
> On Thu, 4 Feb 1999, Brian Betty wrote:
> > Right, so Carlos' statement applies to this situation - if the words are
> > being written 'fasis' and 'fue,' might that not suggest that f>h>0 had not
> > yet occurred, so 'izo' could *not* be the same as modern Spanish 'hizo.'  I
> > think!?!?!
>
> The problem is that f>h>0 apparently started early and is not yet
> complete.  There's also the possibility of "learned influences" which tend
> towards 0>f.  [haz/faz (face), faceta (gem facet); hacer/facer; higo
> (fig), figueral (fig orchard)] "Ser" (of which 'fue' is a part) is immune,
> becuase words starting with fue- and sometimes fie- are immune to the
> change.  "Fasis" may well be a learned word (this being a religious text),
> which also tend towards immunity.
Yes. From what I've read, the f in Castilian tended to stay before u
and in some other cases, which I don't remember offhand. I don't know
of any rule where fie- stayed as is (e.g., Latin
ferrum>fierro>hierro). Finally, I was wondering what the word is in
standard Spanish where "fasis" is used in Ladino.

--
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      Eric Christopherson
eric@ticon.net erachrir@uwc.edu