Re: Ladino, Hs, and Fs

On Thu, 4 Feb 1999, Brian Betty wrote:

> On Wed, 3 Feb 1999 18:25:39 -0500 Carlos Thompson
> <cthompso@...> writes:
> "[]I don't think that the explanation is the lack of "f" in Hebrew (was it
> written in Hebrew alphabet?) after 'fasis' and 'fue' use that 'f'."
> -- Carlos
>
> Stephen wrote: "There is an F in Hebrew....it's an allophone of P.  I think
> what the person was talking about who was talking about Fs is that many
> Latin words with F turned into H in Spanish, like "hacer". It was written
> in the Hebrew alphabet, the [f]s were marked with a bar over the letter to
> distinguish them from the [p]s."
>
> Right, so Carlos' statement applies to this situation - if the words are
> being written 'fasis' and 'fue,' might that not suggest that f>h>0 had not
> yet occurred, so 'izo' could *not* be the same as modern Spanish 'hizo.'  I
> think!?!?!
The problem is that f>h>0 apparently started early and is not yet
complete.  There's also the possibility of "learned influences" which tend
towards 0>f.  [haz/faz (face), faceta (gem facet); hacer/facer; higo
(fig), figueral (fig orchard)] "Ser" (of which 'fue' is a part) is immune,
becuase words starting with fue- and sometimes fie- are immune to the
change.  "Fasis" may well be a learned word (this being a religious text),
which also tend towards immunity.

Padraic.

>
> BB
>
> Only 332  shopping days left before the end of the world!
>
> The problem with human genepool is lack of lifeguard.
Not to mention water under the high dive...

> - unknown ape
>