Re: A Franco-Turkic a posteriori language

Somebody may have already mentioned this, but an interesting parallel case
might be the Spanish-Arabic contact situation in the Iberian Peninsula during
the Middle Ages--not only did Spanish inherit a significant amount of
vocabulary from Arabic, but there was some borrowing of syntax/morphology as
well, especially in regard to verb forms. Specifically, in modern Spanish
verbs must agree with their subjects in number. In modern formal Arabic, verbs
must agree in gender, but number agreement is obligatory ONLY if the suibject
preceeds the verb. Otherwise the verb remains singular, no matter whether the
subject is singular or plural.
If you go far enough back (to the Poem of the Cid, for example) you can see
Spanish using this Arabic rule, i.e. in sentences where the verb precedes the
subject, the verb may be singular even if the subject is plural.