Re: Diffrent possessions

> What I mean are the translations of the word "of": in the sentence "his leg"> the
> leg is a possession because "he" owns the leg. In the sentences "his>
> arrival" or "the arrest of …" it seems to me the arrival and the arrest
> are> things that are being done and therefore are no possession, but are
> treated> as such. Is there some kind of difference in terms for this? Or
> could I work> around it somehow?
These are not possessions at all. They're just, um, things thatEnglish expresses
with the word "of." Other languages do itdifferently.
EG, given a verbal noun like "arrival" (i.e. a noun that refers to anaction), most
languages need a way to describe the doer of the action.When we actually use
the verb "to arrive" we just make the doer thesubject, but with the equivalent
noun we need another way. Englishuses the possessive. Yivrian uses the ablative
as the subject ofverbal nouns. Greek uses the genitive as the subject and
object ofverbal nouns, but uses the accusative as the subject of theinfinitive.
So basically you can do it however you want.
-- JS Bangsjaspax@gmail.comhttp://jaspax.com
"I could buy you a drinkI could tell you all about itI could tell you why I
doubtedAnd why I still believe." - Pedro the Lion