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Re: Some more Madzhi grammar

From:Michael Poxon <m.poxon@...>
Date:Monday, March 18, 2002, 16:44
Hungarian has definite and indefinite conjugations of verbs (and no gender).
By "noun to verb" I take it he means something like "farmer" > "farm"
(though in every language I've met, it goes the other way). I believe that
Hungarian also puts the most important word in the sentence immediately
before the verb or copula. Looks a very Hungarian conlang!
Mike

> > VERBS > > > > Verbs hav an indefinite and a definite conjugation. > > What's the difference? Why would someone use indefinite instead of > definite conjugation? I've heard of definite and indefinite nouns, but > not verbs. > > > noun to verb: -l2tS- > > In what sense? in the sense of "house" to "to house?" Or in the sense of > "dog" to "to dog." > > > I'm not certain about word order yet, but I think it's fairly free,
within
> > limits, meaning, different word order stresses a different thign, like
in
> > Hungarian. > > With so many cases, that'd be almost inevitable, I'd think. But there > still ought to be an overarching "neutral" word order. In Latin, word > order is free but SOV is the "neutral" word order; if you mess with it, > you're emphasizing something else. > > --Patrick > > > ~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~ > > Prurio modo viri qui in arbore pilosa est. > ~~Elvis > > ~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~ >

Replies

John Cowan <jcowan@...>
Frank George Valoczy <valoczy@...>