|From:||Raymond A. Brown <raybrown@...>|
|Date:||Wednesday, July 14, 1999, 20:47|
At 7:24 pm +0200 14/7/99, BP Jonsson wrote:
>At 03:56 -0400 11.7.1999, John Cowan wrote:.........
>>There's an interesting parallel in the German for "Jesus Christ"
>>(and each word separately):the Latin case endings are kept!
>>Nom. Jesus Christus, Acc. Jesum Christum, etc.[snip]
>Swedish has the genitive "Jesu Kristi", tho "errors" from this usage do
>occur. No distinct accusative, however. Must remember to check if it was
>used in the older (16th and early 18th century) Bible translations!
>BTW it occurs to me that "Iesus" is irregular in Latin itself. AFAIK the
>inflection is borrowed from greek but is irregular there too! Ray?
It is borrowed from Greek and certainly by classical standards it is
irregular there also, being of course a borrowing from Aramaic.
But the Greek declension is not abnormal for the modern language nor IIRC
for foreign names partially assimilated into Hellnic Greek. It is given a
final -s for nom., and a final -n for the acc. and no ending for the gen. &
IHCOYC (nom) /ie:su:s/
IHCOYN (acc) /ie:su:n/
IHCOY (gen., dat., voc.) /ie:su:/
...with circumflex on the final upsilon. Probably even in Hellenic form it
denoted stress, as in the modern language where /e:/ has become /i/, thus
But Greek commonly had the definite article before proper names, so cases
could usually be quite clearly distinguished.
Similarly the Latin had only three forms: Iesus (nom.), Iesum (acc.) & Iesu
(gen., dat, abl. and vocative). The 'u' was long in the 1st cent. (but may
have been shortened before the acc. -m) and the word was, following the
Greek, irregularly stressed on the final.
If German does indeed keep the Latin forms, then it should have:
Jesus Christus (nom)
Jesum Christum (acc)
Jesu Christi (gen)
Jesu Christo (dat)
A mind which thinks at its own expense
will always interfere with language.
[J.G.Hamann - 1760]