| From: | John Cowan <cowan@...> |
|---|---|
| Date: | Thursday, September 30, 1999, 16:26 |
Christophe Grandsire scripsit:> Really? So the French "fleur de soufre" would come from a direct > translation of English? Because in French, "fleur" (flower) and "farine" > (flour) have never been related to one another. And if so, I don't know > where the French expression would come from...Perhaps "fleur" once had the sense of "flour" as well as "flower"; after all, the English word is a borrowing. -- John Cowan cowan@ccil.org I am a member of a civilization. --David Brin