>I'm wondering whether there is a sense distinction between "I have
>money" and "I've got money" now. My intuitive impression is that the
>former is somewhat more marked and emphatic than the latter, but
>that's a very vague impression. Maybe the former is a bit more formal
>than the latter too.
For me:
I have money = I have a quantity of money that is not here
[He has money = he is filthy rich]
I've got money = I have a quantity of currency on me at the moment
The former generally points to wealth (especially when used in the
third person), or else that the money one has is not currently at the
same location as ones self. While the latter would indicate a
relatively small sum of money, but one that is about ones person now.
Padraic.
>
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> edheil@postmark.net
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>"Bill Gates is a white Persian cat and a monocle away from becoming
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>
>John Cowan wrote:
>
>> Nik Taylor wrote:
>> >
>> > Raymond Brown wrote:
>> > > another, much as I say 'have got' and, I guess, Nik says 'have gotten'.
>> >
>> > I use both, actually.
>>
>> As do all Americans, a point frequently muddled by English authors
>> in their attempts to represent American English. They make their
>> poor characters commit things like *"He hasn't gotten any sense", which
>> can only mean "He hasn't *acquired* any sense", which is nonsense!
>> The natural expression is "He hasn't got any sense"; "He hasn't any sense"
>> seems a bit odd here.
>>
>> Sometimes the two are in minimal contrast. "He hasn't got any money"
>> means he is poor; "He hasn't gotten any money" means none has arrived
>> from the source in question.
>>
>> --
>>
>> Schlingt dreifach einen Kreis vom dies! || John Cowan
><jcowan@...>
>> Schliesst euer Aug vor heiliger Schau, ||
http://www.reutershealth.com
>> Denn er genoss vom Honig-Tau, ||
http://www.ccil.org/~cowan
>> Und trank die Milch vom Paradies. -- Coleridge (tr. Politzer)
>