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Re: A problem solved: Arabisms in Spanish

From:Pablo Flores <fflores@...>
Date:Thursday, February 18, 1999, 2:03
Carlos Thompson <cthompso@...> wrote:

> vardi wrote: >=20 > > Thanks John! Yeah, there is a root KH - W - L with the meaning grant=
,
> > accord, concede. That's almost certainly it! The mystery is solved. > >=20 > > The middle root letter is "w", a "hollow" letter in Arabic grammatica=
l
> > terms, falling out in many conjugations. So the fact that only the KH > > (in Spanish orthography - "j") and the L remain is quite
understandable. [snip]
> > As for Gustavo's comment that the Portuguese equivalent uses a "sh" (=
S)
> > sound rather than KH, I guess we must now see that not as a more > > faithful rendition of the original Arabic, but rather as the > > assimilation of the expression into the (beautiful and gentle, IMHO) > > sound patterns typical of Portuguese. >=20 > The original pronunciation of <j> in Spanish was /Z/ which get devoiced
/S/
> and back /x/, probably "ojal=E1" is derived from a arab root using /Z/ =
or
> /S/... =BF/nS/? That could explain Portuguese "oxal=E1".
There are some questions we have to ask ourselves: Did Spanish have /x/ at that time (together with /Z/ and /S/)? If that's the case, an Arabic KH could have entered Spanish as /x/ and then adopted by Portuguese as /S/. Did Spanish still have original Latin /h/? If it had lost it already, a possible Arabic /h/ could have been heard as /x/. And then of course, the original expression could have had /S/; but I don't think /inS-/ could have developed into /ox-/. --Pablo Flores * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * Wyszkowski's Second Law: Anything can be made to work if you fiddle with it long enough. * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * *