Re: Chinese Dialect Question
From: | Nik Taylor <yonjuuni@...> |
Date: | Thursday, October 2, 2003, 18:32 |
Garth Wallace wrote:
>
> JS Bangs wrote:
> > Mark J. Reed sikyal:
> >
> > Furthermore, most languages have exactly one rhotic
>
> Is this a universal, or are there some languages with more than one?
It's a universal tendency, but not an absolute. There are languages
with no rhotics, and some with more than one. Spanish is perhaps the
best-known example of a language with two rhotics, having both the tap
{r} and the trill {rr}
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