Re: Chinese Dialect Question

--- James Campbell <james@...> wrote:
> Well, Spanish for one distinguishes between |r| and
> |rr| (supply your own
> phonology as appropriate). But IIUC the place of
> articulation is the same.
>
> A conlang that differentiated between 3 Rs would be
> kinda cool...

I sketched a lang once (phonology only really) which
had only rhotics and liquids as consonants.  It had
both Spanish R's, the French R, a uvular R, the Pinyin
R, the American R, a rounded WR and lateralized LR
that I can remember.  The liquids included "light" and
"dark" L's the Spanish LL, the Welsh LL, a retroflex L
and probably others.

That lang was sketched about the same time as the one
with all the consonants acoustically similar to /tS/.
It was my weird period.

Adam

>
> -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- --
> -- -- -- -- -- -- -- --
> James Campbell
> james@zolid.com  www.zolid.com
> Boring, but a cool boring.
> -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- --
> -- -- -- -- -- -- -- --
> ----- Original Message -----
> From: "Garth Wallace" <gwalla@...>
> To: <CONLANG@...>
> Sent: Thursday, October 02, 2003 6:01 PM
> Subject: Re: Chinese Dialect Question
>
>
> > JS Bangs wrote:
> > > Mark J. Reed sikyal:
> > >
> > > Furthermore, most languages have exactly one
> rhotic
> >
> > Is this a universal, or are there some languages
> with more than one?
> >
> >

=====
Il prori ul pa&#38621;veju fi dji atexindu mutu madji
fached. -- Carrajena proverb