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Re: Chinese Dialect Question

From:Adam Walker <carrajena@...>
Date:Friday, October 3, 2003, 8:00
--- James Campbell <james@...> wrote:
> Well, Spanish for one distinguishes between |r| and > |rr| (supply your own > phonology as appropriate). But IIUC the place of > articulation is the same. > > A conlang that differentiated between 3 Rs would be > kinda cool...
I sketched a lang once (phonology only really) which had only rhotics and liquids as consonants. It had both Spanish R's, the French R, a uvular R, the Pinyin R, the American R, a rounded WR and lateralized LR that I can remember. The liquids included "light" and "dark" L's the Spanish LL, the Welsh LL, a retroflex L and probably others. That lang was sketched about the same time as the one with all the consonants acoustically similar to /tS/. It was my weird period. Adam
> > -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- > -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- > James Campbell > james@zolid.com www.zolid.com > Boring, but a cool boring. > -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- > -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- > ----- Original Message ----- > From: "Garth Wallace" <gwalla@...> > To: <CONLANG@...> > Sent: Thursday, October 02, 2003 6:01 PM > Subject: Re: Chinese Dialect Question > > > > JS Bangs wrote: > > > Mark J. Reed sikyal: > > > > > > Furthermore, most languages have exactly one > rhotic > > > > Is this a universal, or are there some languages > with more than one? > > > >
===== Il prori ul pa&#38621;veju fi dji atexindu mutu madji fached. -- Carrajena proverb