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Re: Latin /j/ etc. (was: Latin <h>)

From:Andreas Johansson <andjo@...>
Date:Thursday, January 15, 2004, 20:46
Quoting Ray Brown <ray.brown@...>:

> On Thursday, January 15, 2004, at 12:22 AM, Tristan McLeay wrote: > > [snip] > > My revealing-ignorance question is how do we know that intervocalic /j/ > > was always geminite in Latin? > > Briefly: > 1. The preceding syllable is always reckoned as heavy in Latin prosody. > This by itself, of course, doesn't prove gemination; an intervocalic /j/ > could, for some reason, cause the preceding vowel to be lengthened; but it' > s > difficult to see why and i kow of no parallel examples in other natlangs.
With the exception of some funky loans like _kaviar_ - which is ['kavjar] in my 'lect - pretty much every stressed vowel with a following /v/ is long in Swedish. There are people who say ['kA:viar] or similar, too. BP or Daniel Andreasson may know why, if there's a reason! :) Andreas PS Conversely, you don't normally get a long vowel before /j/. Can't think of a counterexample that don't have a morpheme boundary before the /j/.