Re: plausible sound change?

Aidan Grey wrote:
>    Is this a plausible sound change?
>
>    intervocalically, stops
>
>   (1)_  fricativize after a front vowel
>   (2)_  voices before a front vowel, which affects the
>previous vowel

Assuming the rules apply as I've numbered them, this is OK
>    frex:
>
>    itar > ithar
>    atir > edir
and assuming Rule 1 can't recur to "correct" edir > eDir

But if the order is 2,1,  then it would depend on whether ALL front vowels
trigger the change, or just HIGH FRONT vowels.
>
>    what would happen is both vowels were front?
>
>    etir > eidir or ithir?
Same problem:  eidir < 2,1; ithir < 1,2 (why does e- change to i-??).

As to plausibility, IMVHO not.  (Though I'm suppose someone will cite a
natlang ex.)  I can't see front vowels , or voicing, causing these
particular changes (typologically speaking). However, I can see front vowels
> fricativize front (dental) consonants, perhaps along with back vowels >
fric. back (velar) consonants, etc.; similarly, voicing of cons. between
(all) vowels;  or changes to vowels depending on the following vowel--
that's sort of what umlaut is.

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