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Re: Looking for a case: counting

From:Christophe Grandsire <christophe.grandsire@...>
Date:Sunday, February 15, 2004, 20:33
En réponse à Philippe Caquant :


>I don't think that 'with a hammer' is an adverbial >concept. I never thought of hitting something >'hammerly'. It is instrumental.
And instrumental *is* an adverbial concept. You may not agree with it, but it is part of the definition.
> It is something quite >different from 'many times', which is a process >quantifier as I said.
I just consider it to be a temporal mark. I don't see the point of such a useless distinction.
>I very well understand that 'times' is a plural noun, >syntactically, in French like in English, like in >Russian (mnogo raz) - but NOT in German for instance >(vielmals).
So what? "vielmals" is obviously originally a noun phrase. So your example proves nothing, except that German has more compounding capacities than English or French. But that we already knew. Also, as Andreas rightly pointed out, "adverb" is a morphological concept only, i.e. it refers only to surface forms. You can't use it to refer to semantic concepts. And if you do, there's just no way you cannot put temporal, local or instrumental noun phrases among "adverbs" (adverbials, as Andreas wrote correctly). You're making a distinction that is semantically meaningless, only because your L1 does it. You look like those people of the Encyclopédie who classified languages as "straight-going" and "retrograde" depending on whether they went "in the direction of the thought process", and "against the thought process". Of course, to be "straight-going", a language had to have SVO word order, relative clauses after the nouns they complete, adjectives usually following nouns, i.e. be like French. So they thought that everybody thought in French, and languages that didn't follow French rules went "against the thought process". We luckily know better nowadays.
> I just say that 'many times' is an >adverbial concept, and I cannot see that my mother >tongue is blinding me in that respect, as we say in >French 'de nombreuses fois'.
Which is basically the same form as "many times", without a preposition. It's this absence of preposition that makes you think of this form as more adverbial than "with a hammer". Your analysis at the beginning of your post shows it very clearly.
>I maybe misunderstood the point, but I thought that >people were trying to realize semantic concepts in >conlangs.
Yes, and your reply is wrong in that way: it doesn't treat semantic concepts but surface forms.
> My opinion is that if somebody wants to make >out a language (which is a very hard and long task), >he should ask himself first whether it wouldn't be >interesting to do it more logically that natlangs do.
Why? What is "logic" to begin with? You can define many kinds of logic, none being better than another. And logic cannot describe the world. So what's the point of trying to do things logically? It has been tried over and over, and failed (only Lojban/Loglan can be said to be a success, but nobody ever claimed such languages are actually humanly learnable :)) ). You should take that as a hint that it is *not* a useful goal.
>Otherwise, what could be the interest ?
It's like you were saying that painting landscapes is uninteresting because landscapes are around us already.
>Anyway, if I had to make a conlang (which is not the >case at the moment, as I'm only studying these >problems), I would ask myself: shall I decide that >'many times' will be a noun expression, and if so, >what case shall I have to use - question open -), or >shall I decide that it will be, either an adverb, >either just an iterative mark on the verb (and I think >this would be the solution I would adopt, even if it >is NOT so in French or English).
I fail to see what this is supposed to mean. You can make it whatever you want, it doesn't mean anything apart from different surface forms. It doesn't *change* the semantic notions. Japanese encodes politeness in verbs. Does it make it semantically different from the politeness used in French, which is encoded in nouns only? No. Surface forms say nothing about semantic concepts. Which is why instead of answering to questions about semantic concepts with considerations of surface forms (as you did), I advised you to think deeper and recognised that semantically the distinction you made was meaningless. Christophe Grandsire. http://rainbow.conlang.free.fr You need a straight mind to invent a twisted conlang.

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Philippe Caquant <herodote92@...>