Re: French

I have a theory that /raUt/ for <route> came about because of the
overlapping form <routed>. Which of course can be pronounced either [ru:t@d]
or [raUt@d] in BrE depending on the meaning.
Eugene

2009/2/3 Mark J. Reed <markjreed@...>

> Route, /rut/ vs /raUt/?  Though I personally use them pretty
> consistently with a semantic distinction, where /raUt/ is unmarked
> while /rut/ is strictly for road names...
>
>
>
> On 2/3/09, Roger Mills <romiltz@...> wrote:
> > Mark Reed wrote:
> >>
> >> I've learned a lot about português pronunciation.
> >> I'm still confused
> >> about the <ang> though.  Is there a [N] anywhere, or
> >> is it pronounced
> >> the same as if it were spelled <ãg>?
> >>
> > Judging from the replies, it appears to be free variation (or
> > personal/dialectal idiosyncracy?) between [a~g] and [aNg]; probably in
> the
> > latter the a is still nasalized, at least somewhat......(and I suspect
> even
> > in the former, there might be an intrusive [N] as the velum closes for
> the
> > g).
> >
> > The only real free variation in AmEngl. I can think if is "economic(s),
> > economical" with initial [i] or [E], often in the same discourse. Other
> > alternants, like "either" ['iDr=] ~ ['aiDr=] or "tomato" [t@'meyto ~
> > t@'mAto] seem to be regional, maybe even class features.
> >
> >
> >
> >
>
> --
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>
> Mark J. Reed <markjreed@...>
>

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