|From:||Raymond A. Brown <raybrown@...>|
|Date:||Monday, November 23, 1998, 7:27|
At 8:53 pm -0800 22/11/98, Josh Brandt-Young wrote:
>On Sun, 22 Nov 1998 19:26:57 -0500 Nik Taylor <fortytwo@...> writes:
>>> What would the construction used in Modern Greek and Romanian to
>>> the infinitive be called in linguistics terminology?
>>> Example: Greek "thelo na pao" (I want that I go) for "I want to go."
>>Isn't that the subjunctive?
>In this case, yes, but not universally: the subjunctive is only used in
>this case when referring to a perfective action. The indicative is used
>in the same situation to refer to an event in process: "Thelo na piyeno"
>means "I want to be going."
Till some time in the 1980s IIRC both 'pao' & 'piyeno' were called
"subjunctive" in these clauses by purists and, apart from the 1st person
sing., the endings of the "present indicative" & the "present subjunctive"
were spelt differently by purists. That nonsense seems have almost
entirely to have disappeared - tho I expect some purists still adhere to
it. I question very much whether the subjunctive/ indicative distinction
had any real meaning in modern Greek - but that's another story.
>What I'm wondering is whether there's a name for this entire *type* of
It a 'noun clause' (or 'nominal clause'). Here it is the direct object of
'thelo'. Such clauses can also be used as subject of a sentence, e.g.
einai pio efkolo na perpateis para na treheis =
it is easier to walk than to run.
Walking is easier than running.
In Greek such clauses may even be preceeded by the definite article, as
nouns are and as the infinitive often was in ancient Greek, and the clause
may then be governed by a preposition, e.g.
einai kourasmenos ap to min koimatai ['min' = mu eta nu]
He is tired from not sleeping.