Re: Cases, again

Andreas Johansson wrote:

> Quoting Roger Mills <romilly@...>:
> > It seems to me that it has occured --partially, it's true-- in English
and
> > the Romance langs.  I think in Dutch too; how about the Scand.
languages?
> > What about Hindi and other Indic langs. -- any cases left there? Are
> > pronouns treated differently than nouns?
>
> I'm not sure what you're saying? Certainly the neither the Scandinavian
> language nor English use nominatives after prepositions despite having an
> object case - nouns don't have an object case, and pronouns use the object
> forms after prepositions ....
Well, if I read _you_ aright, you're saying that Scand. langs., like Engl.,
have only one form of the noun, which is not marked for case. So the form
after e.g. the prep. "to" is the same as the form used for "subject/object
of the verb".  Right?  Pronouns don't count, of course.

My slight doubt about Dutch arises from the fact that
some of the old 19th C stuff I've read _may_ have had accusative forms, at
least of the article--- I'm unsure, because in reading I tend to gloss over
details like that.

> It occurs to me, however, that some Swedish dialects supposedly has
retained a
> separate dative case. I do not know if they use it and/or nom/acc after
prepositions. BP?

Of nouns?? or just of pronouns, which would be more expected.....

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