Re: Chinese Dialect Question
From: | Mark J. Reed <markjreed@...> |
Date: | Wednesday, October 1, 2003, 15:43 |
On Wed, Oct 01, 2003 at 08:49:33AM -0400, H. S. Teoh wrote:
> OK, I don't actually know Spanish, so this is just (possibly baseless)
> extrapolation from observing Spanish speakers amongst my acquaintances.
> Pronouncing _j_ as [j] could be confusion over the English usage
> (inadvertently swapping the English _j_ and _y_ because one is used to _y_
> being [dZ]). Mind you, this is from Central American Spanish speakers, so
> I'm not surprised it's wildly divergent from European Spanish.
There are plenty of differences between European and American
Spanish dialects, but in none of them is <j> pronounced as [j].
In Spanish, <j> is /x/. It may come out as [h] or as something
between [x] and [S] (like German whichever-ch-laut-isn't /x/), but
never [j].
Castilian spelling is phonemic and runs thus:
<a> /A/ [a]
<b> /b/ [B]
<c> before <e>,<i> /T/
<c> elsewhere /k/
<ch> /tS/
<d> /d/ [D]
<e> /e/ [E]
<f> /f/
<g> /g/ [G]
<h> silent
<i> /i/ [I]
<j> /x/
<k> /k/
<l> /l/
<ll> /l_j/
<m> /m/
<n> /n/
<ñ> /n_j/
<o> /o/ [O]
<p> /p/
<qu> /k/
<r> /4/
<rr> /r/
<s> /s/
<t> /t/
<u> /u/ [U]
<v> /b/ [B]
<w> /w/
<x> /ks/,/x/
<y> /y/,/i/ [I]
<z> /T/
The primary differences in American Spanish are the replacement of
/T/ and /l_j/ with /s/ and /j/, respectively. Also, /j/ (whether
spelled <ll> or <y>) tends to turn into a fricative [Z] or even an
affricate [dZ)]. And the intervocalic fricativization of some of the
voiced stops isn't quite as regular as it is in Castilian;
/b/ and /d/ do almost alwas become [B] and [D] intervocalically, but
sometimes /g/ stubbornly remains [g] instead of becoming [G] the
way it ought to. :)
-Mark
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