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Re: Chinese Dialect Question

From:Mark J. Reed <markjreed@...>
Date:Wednesday, October 1, 2003, 15:43
On Wed, Oct 01, 2003 at 08:49:33AM -0400, H. S. Teoh wrote:
> OK, I don't actually know Spanish, so this is just (possibly baseless) > extrapolation from observing Spanish speakers amongst my acquaintances. > Pronouncing _j_ as [j] could be confusion over the English usage > (inadvertently swapping the English _j_ and _y_ because one is used to _y_ > being [dZ]). Mind you, this is from Central American Spanish speakers, so > I'm not surprised it's wildly divergent from European Spanish.
There are plenty of differences between European and American Spanish dialects, but in none of them is <j> pronounced as [j]. In Spanish, <j> is /x/. It may come out as [h] or as something between [x] and [S] (like German whichever-ch-laut-isn't /x/), but never [j]. Castilian spelling is phonemic and runs thus: <a> /A/ [a] <b> /b/ [B] <c> before <e>,<i> /T/ <c> elsewhere /k/ <ch> /tS/ <d> /d/ [D] <e> /e/ [E] <f> /f/ <g> /g/ [G] <h> silent <i> /i/ [I] <j> /x/ <k> /k/ <l> /l/ <ll> /l_j/ <m> /m/ <n> /n/ <ñ> /n_j/ <o> /o/ [O] <p> /p/ <qu> /k/ <r> /4/ <rr> /r/ <s> /s/ <t> /t/ <u> /u/ [U] <v> /b/ [B] <w> /w/ <x> /ks/,/x/ <y> /y/,/i/ [I] <z> /T/ The primary differences in American Spanish are the replacement of /T/ and /l_j/ with /s/ and /j/, respectively. Also, /j/ (whether spelled <ll> or <y>) tends to turn into a fricative [Z] or even an affricate [dZ)]. And the intervocalic fricativization of some of the voiced stops isn't quite as regular as it is in Castilian; /b/ and /d/ do almost alwas become [B] and [D] intervocalically, but sometimes /g/ stubbornly remains [g] instead of becoming [G] the way it ought to. :) -Mark

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