| From: | Roger Mills <romilly@...> |
|---|---|
| Date: | Thursday, January 15, 2004, 15:51 |
Ray Brown wrote:> > Also we have the testimony of the Romancelangs; French 'mais' and Spanish > 'más' cannot derive from [majjIs]. * > > * 'magis' [adv.] = more, rather. The Spanish meaning continues the first > Latin > meaning; the French (= 'but') is derived from the second. >Minor reminder: Span. has mas 'but' too, though it's literary and rare nowadays. (Hence the need for the accent to distinguish más 'more'.) Port. mais also has both meanings.
| Ray Brown <ray.brown@...> |