| From: | <morphemeaddict@...> |
|---|---|
| Date: | Friday, April 11, 2008, 23:35 |
In a message dated 4/11/2008 11:21:26 AM Central Daylight Time, markjreed@MAIL.COM writes:> Ich kan' nicht JSTOR lesen. :( > > So does the y in Spanish «ha + y» have the same origin as the y in >Why is there an apostrophe after "kan"? The word is just "kann". And yes, it's the same origin. stevo </HTML>
| Mark J. Reed <markjreed@...> |