Re: "There can be"
| From: | Mark J. Reed <markjreed@...> |
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| Date: | Friday, April 11, 2008, 23:39 |
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On Fri, Apr 11, 2008 at 7:35 PM, <MorphemeAddict@...> wrote:
> Why is there an apostrophe after "kan"? The word is just "kann".
Well, I didn't write "kann", did I? I wrote "kan". Which is short a
letter. Q.E.D. :-)
(OK, so I was thinking "kanne". Sue me.)
> And yes, it's the same origin.
So I assume Spanish lost "y" = "there" due to homophony with "y" =
"and"... were "ahí" and friends originally augmented versions of "y"?
--
Mark J. Reed <markjreed@...>
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