Re: USAGE: rhotics (was: Advanced English + Babel text)

Pascal A. Kramm wrote:

>On Wed, 3 Nov 2004 14:37:56 -0500, J. 'Mach' Wust <j_mach_wust@...> wrote:
>
>
>>On Wed, 3 Nov 2004 12:11:30 -0500, Sally Caves <scaves@...> wrote:
>>
>>
>>
>>>I've never heard a uvular trill [R\] among francophones; rather, the
>>>fricative [R] or the unvoiced fricative /x/, especially after "t": "trois,"
>>>etc.  The uvular trills I'm familiar with occur in Hebrew (in fact I was
>>>just practicing it with a group of Israelis the other night), and among
>>>certain German speakers.  Many Germans, I gather, don't trill, but merely
>>>fricatize the "r"; but I have a teasing friend who tells me that I sound
>>>French when I pronounce German.  That may well be; my training has been
>>>mostly in French and Spanish.
>>>
>>>
>>Because of the /r/-realization? I would have said that the French accent of
>>German isn't characterized by a specific realization of /r/, but rather (by
>>rhythm and melody, of course) by the realization of /ç/ , /h/ and /i/.
>>
>>
>
>If someone here in Germany wants to imitate a French dialect, he'll most
>notably omit the initial "h" sound (e.g. turning "hotel" into "otel"), and
>pronounce the German "ch" as "sh".
>
>
>
We do the h-dropping(though that happens in most dialects, too, in
England, though not consistently).  We replace /T/ and /D/ with /s/ and
/z/, respectively, and add many front rounded vowels (/b2:d/ instead of
/b3:d/, for example).