Re: USAGE: rhotics (was: Advanced English + Babel text)
| From: | Steven Williams <feurieaux@...> |
|---|
| Date: | Thursday, November 4, 2004, 17:17 |
|---|
--- "Pascal A. Kramm" <pkramm@...> [r\VUt_?]:
> If someone here in Germany wants to imitate a French
> dialect, he'll most notably omit the initial "h"
> sound (e.g. turning "hotel" into "otel"), and
> pronounce the German "ch" as "sh".
Is [x] turned to [S] _all_ the time, or only when it
appears palatalized as [C]? As a native speaker of
English, I sometimes catch myself doing the same
thing; i.e., I'd pronounce /machen/ pretty much
perfectly, as ["ma.xn=], but I'd realize the phrase
/ich dächte/ as [IS."dES.t@].
Do the French have any particular problems with the
[x] sound (in its velar allophone, not in its palatal allophone)?
Reply