Re: German+Hungarian question

On Sat 03 September 2005, 12:59 CEST, Ingmar Roerdinkholder
wrote

 > Btw how do Magyars do that in Hungarian unfriendly
 > environments? Because
 > they have two kinds of umlauts for u and o: ü and ö, and u
 > and o with ",
 > large umlaut accents, like a double accent aigu, for long
 > [2:] and [y:].
 > For ö and ü, oe and ue can be used, but what for the long
 > umlauts?
 > oee and uee? ooe and uue?

I don't know how the Hungarian solve the problems with their
umlauts. In Scandinavian countries, it's common to leave
them out in internet addresses, btw. The French also leave
out their accents when they're not available.

By saying this:

 >>> If you want to have it without the dots, it's
 >>> _Peenemuende_, since ä=ae, ö=oe, ü=ue and ß=ss in German
 >>> unfriendly environments.

I rather referred to German, since here the habit is to
write vowel+e for umlauted letters. And I was also (like so
often) a bit too quickly with the mouse on the send button:
In fact, I know that English QWERTY keyboards do not have
macrons. Only after sending this mail, I noticed that I
forgot to mention HTML. Since websites are written in HTML,
it's actually easy to get many of those accents without
trouble: ä = ä for instance etc., so I thought 'Why
don't they care about diacritics even when they're easily
accessible?'. I understood the points brought forward,
though. Of course, when a diacritic does not mean anything
to you, you're likely to forget it. Anyway, when you want to
write "Peenemünde" 150% right, and without the diaresis,
write it "Peenemuende", since this is the habit in Germany.

Concludingly, I think it's an oddity of German to have
vowel+e for the diaresis, since many other languages simply
leave their diacritics out if they're not available.

Apologizingly,
Carsten

--
"Miranayam cepauarà naranoaris."
(Calvin nay Hobbes)

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