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Re: Babel text in Spanzhol

From:Mark J. Reed <markjreed@...>
Date:Monday, April 5, 2004, 17:02
On Mon, Apr 05, 2004 at 03:59:54AM -0400, John Cowan wrote:
> Shfanzhol is a language of North America about 1000 years from now.
So which is it - Spanzhol or Shfanzhol? I see from the sample that Sfanzhol would also be legal . . .
> This is not the final version. Orthography is ad hoc, Spanish > mostly, but h sh zh dzh are [h] [S] [Z] [dZ], v is labio-dental.
So <j> represents [x]?
> [1] Tsoa la siedzha aplava la mishma lenkua i lash mishmash pfalaplash.
No time to look at this in detail, but my initial response is "cool!" :) My immediate-post-initial response follows: Affricativization (verbing weirds language!) of initial voiceless stops ([t] -> [ts], [p] -> [pf]); that's interesting. A response to the English-speakers' aspiration of what are in native monolingual Spanish unaspirated stops, perhaps? I see poor intervocalic /d/ has continued its long slide into oblivion. But other voiced intervocalic stops have lost their voice (<aplava, <lenkua>, <pfalaplash>), which seems odd to me; I thought it usually went the other way. I guess you're moving forward along a general devoicing trend, from e.g. [g] to [G] (already there in modern Spanish) to [k] to [h] to zero? I don't know where <siedzha> comes from; if <tierra>, it seems a bit inconsistent with the rest of the shifts. I'd expect <tsiela> or maybe <tshela> or some such. More later. -Mark

Replies

Mark J. Reed <markjreed@...>
ROGER MILLS <rfmilly@...>