Re: "There can be"
| From: | Roger Mills <rfmilly@...> |
|---|
| Date: | Saturday, April 12, 2008, 2:55 |
|---|
Mark Reed wrote:
>
> So I assume Spanish lost "y" = "there" due to homophony with "y" =
> "and"...
possibly......
> were "ahí" and friends originally augmented versions of "y"?
I've always assumed (and possibly read somewhere) that ahí is < **ad hic,
and allá < **ad illa; once wrote this in a term paper and got no argument,
but of course that proves nothing.... French and Ital. là 'there' seem
pretty clear, < illa.
That leaves Span. acá (ad quam??) and allí ???? unclear. And what about Fr.
ici?? Italian IIRC has both qui 'here' and qua, as in vieni qua 'come here!'
(Cf. Span. ven /venga acá).
Reply